I have trouble believing Dyno RWHP % factors... | FerrariChat

I have trouble believing Dyno RWHP % factors...

Discussion in 'Technical Q&A' started by James_Woods, Aug 26, 2008.

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  1. James_Woods

    James_Woods F1 World Champ

    May 17, 2006
    12,755
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    James K. Woods
    This got started because of all the talk in Other Cars about the "real" H.P. of the GT-R...but this is not about the GT-R.

    My problem is with the blithe little rules for figuring the "engine" H.P. from the "rear-wheel" or even "all-wheel" dyno numbers by a standard percentage.

    The general accepted wisdom is that a standard loss percentage can be applied to rear-engine cars (a low one), to front engine cars (a medium figure), and to AWD systems (usually the highest of all).

    I have several problems with this:

    First - while I can see that an AWD probably has more frictional transfer losses than an RWD, what I don't get is that some have gone so far to say that a rear engine car has as much as a 10% advantage over a front engine car. It just does not make sense to me - 10%, even 5% just because there is a solid metal driveshaft a few feet long between the components in a front engine? Really? I have a 993 Porsche and a Testarossa - both could be called rear engine cars. The transmission setup is vastly different -can one single formula truly be applied?

    Second - I have a real problem using a standard % rate for cars with increasing H.P. The first C6 Corvettes had about 400 engine H.P. That would give you a loss of 80 H.P. if you figure 20%. Later cars would have 505 H.P., and now even 640 H.P. If you keep the same percentage, you would now have from 101 to 128 H.P. I have trouble believing this if they have practically identical drivetrains. It seems to me that with the hugely powerful supercars of today, that drivetrain loss becomes a diminishing percentage of available power, just like the alternator, the water pump, or the A/C compressor would be. I had an old Porsche 911T with only 125 h.p. that could barely turn its AC unit at idle RPM, (you had to use the hand throttle to keep it from dying), but a modern Porsche like the 993 - (285 h.p. and about the same compressor load) has no problem at all.

    Do these "rule of thumb" formulas need a tune-up, or should they be dismissed as being too simplistic?
     
  2. Artvonne

    Artvonne F1 Veteran

    Oct 29, 2004
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    I have problems with a lot of myself, but for different reason's. I havent seen anything along the lines your talking like front vs rear drive, but the loss percentages and physical HP figures and the machines being used.

    There are two ways of measuring HP. One is a brake dynomometer, the other is inertial. Only the brake dyno is realistically accurate because it can hold the wheel or engine at a particular rpm through braking, and calculate HP by measuring constant torque.

    The inertia dyno works completely different. By the wheels accelerating a drum of certain mass, the time to speed is calculated into HP. The problem is that there are far to many variables. Any change in mass in any of the cars components will effect the result. So if two identical cars were ran, and if both gave equal numbers, simply changing the flywheel of one to a lighter unit would show an increase in power. Yet there was no increase in power, so it shouldnt be used. Yet it is. Lighter pistons, lighter rods, valves, clutch, even wheels and tires will show a gain on an inertial dynomometer, that wouldnt be seen on a brake dyno. I see the enertia dyno as measuring the "cars" power, not the engines. I see the brake dyno completely the opposite.

    As to geartrain power loss percentages, it seems to be an industry accepted practice to use a straight percentage. And without tests and trials to measure it its all we have to go on. From what ive studied it would seem more likely the drivetrain consumes energy on a curve rather than a straight line. That it starts with a fixed load that increases towards a flat line, so at a certain point in speed and power it no longer absorbs the same percentage of energy. The only way to prove it is to take an engine that was run over a wide range of rpm's and power settings, and retest it after its attached to the final drive. But if the power loss curves in the planetary geartrains of turboprop aircraft transmissions can be used as an example, it shoud prove out the same with any transmission.
     
  3. Samy

    Samy Formula Junior

    Dec 2, 2005
    603
    Forget % Drivetrainlos :) Dismiss it totaly it isn't and wasn't anything near accurate in the past or now or in future. Just messure your drivetrainlos on the dyno doesn't matter if brake or inertia because when you messure drivetrainlos you got on both a accurate engine hp / torque reading.
     
  4. James_Woods

    James_Woods F1 World Champ

    May 17, 2006
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    What are you saying? Did you mean to dismiss the idea of calculating "back" from wheel dyno results to estimate crankshaft H.P?

    If so, I have to agree.
     
  5. Samy

    Samy Formula Junior

    Dec 2, 2005
    603
    Right because its just impossible to do its like reading tea leaves to find out the lottery numbers of next week. You have to messure the drivetrainloss and not guess it.
     
  6. James_Woods

    James_Woods F1 World Champ

    May 17, 2006
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    Which leads to the point that maybe a lot of this dyno time people are spending on their brand new cars is suspect in purpose - sort of a bragging rights for people who don't want to burn up a clutch or their tires on a dragstrip.

    Multiplication of the RWHP by some meaningless (or inaccurate) "formula" to get a hypothetical engine H.P. has always seemed a slight bit silly to me.
     
  7. mk e

    mk e F1 World Champ

    Oct 31, 2003
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    For some cars there are good correction factors documented by testing the same engine in both methods. For a US rw drive car where high gear in the trans is 1:1 locking the input to the counter shaft the number always seems to come out to 15%. For a transverse engine the number is more like 17-18% because the power is going through more gears before it gets to the wheels. Rear engine longitudinal set-ups are in the 15-17% depending on exactly how the trans is configured.

    The numer is not a true straight % but it's close. Friction is directly proportional to the force, some more power means more friction and there is just no way around it.

    That said the only number that matters is the rw hp and it's only really accurate for comparison of changes on the same day on the same dyno.
     
  8. snj5

    snj5 F1 World Champ

    Feb 22, 2003
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    +1
    Everything beyond is just an approximation, with an accepted window of error.
    ...but, it's fun nevertheless if not taken too seriously realizing the shotcomings.
    :)
     
  9. Artvonne

    Artvonne F1 Veteran

    Oct 29, 2004
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    You would be doing a lot of trial and error trying to build a scratch built model helicopter, or a full sized one for that matter, without making some educated assumptions on power losses in basic gear trains.
     
  10. James_Woods

    James_Woods F1 World Champ

    May 17, 2006
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    Artvonne makes a good point. I believe that I read somewhere that power transfer efficiency for just a simple pair of gears is in the mid-90% range, while a chain or belt drive could be a few ticks higher in efficiency. Obviously, most car transmissions/diffs need gears (for torque handling and compactness)...so -

    Just three gearsets in a drive line, if that were so - would give you .95 * .95 * .95 = .857 (which would be around the 15% that was mentioned above). A "high" gear that drives input-output directly would cut that back to just the friction losses of the bearings and the gears in the diff.

    BTW, it is still my opinion that the reality of these measurements is far enough from a straight percentage on cars as powerful as a GT-R or a ZR1 to actually matter in the grand scheme of things. But, that is probably just me...
     
  11. enginefxr

    enginefxr Formula 3

    Aug 20, 2007
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    I agree,the only number that matters is wheel horsepower. I have an engine dyno (with over 4000 pulls on it) and I use it to extract the most horsepower available from the engine. I would like to have a chassis dyno ( sometime soon) so I can translate the losses and try to find out where the driveline could be improved. You can't just go by a percentage of losses based off of if the car is rear wheel drive, front wheel drive, etc., each and every transmission/driveline setup is different. Case inpoint: NHRA stock eliminator racers used to always use powerglide transmissions because they consume less horsepower to turn their gears and clutch packs because they were 2 speed transmissions (less parts to turn = more horsepower) vs. TH350's or TH400's. As of a few years ago they all switched to TH200's because they consume even less horsepower, but yet are a 3 speed trans like the 350's and 400's. Both are rear wheel drive transmissions, but have vastly different outputs on rear wheel horsepower. The ideal situation is to measure the engine horsepower, then install it in the chassis and measure it again. Only then can you be assured that the engine or driveline isn't killing the other with a hidden problem. Figuring engine horsepower from a chassis dyno, or figuring rear wheel horsepower from an engine dyno is nothing more than a guess at best.
    And I disagree with a previous post stating that "So if two identical cars were ran, and if both gave equal numbers, simply changing the flywheel of one to a lighter unit would show an increase in power. Yet there was no increase in power, so it shouldnt be used. Yet it is. Lighter pistons, lighter rods, valves, clutch, even wheels and tires will show a gain on an inertial dynomometer, that wouldnt be seen on a brake dyno". Yes, lighter pistons, rods, etc. WILL increase the engines horsepower. Any change in an engine or driveline's rotating weight will affect the horsepower output. Race teams go to great lengths to lighten parts to increase performance.
     

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